Manufacturer's Signature Tone

[Photojeep]

Hi Everyone,
I've done a quick search but really didn't find much to answer my question:

After reading many, many posts about guitars' tone and how each manufacturer seems to have their "own" sound, I began wondering how this is possible.

I'm NOT saying this tone difference doesn't exist. I own a Gibson and two Martins so I KNOW it exists. My question is how is this possible?

All I play and own are dreadnoughts and while there are definite similarities, there is a distinctive difference between brands. My two Martins, a DCPA4 Siris and a DSR2, while different models and ages and materials still exhibit a distinct "Martin Tone" the is different from my Gibson J15.

I mean, we all know that two different guitars of the same model will yield two different sounds yet how is it possible they are both within the same "family" of tone?

I've read one model of guitar has forward shifted bracing and another has non-shifted bracing, while this one has scalloped bracing yet that one has straight braces, and yet another's braces are made of wood species "X" and a different model's braces are made of species "Y"; and yet these guitars, with all their differences have a similar "sound"

How is this possible? If there are so many different variables in the equation how can they have a "Martin" sound rather than a "Gibson" sound?

Enquiring minds want to know...

Best,
PJ

[Oldguy64]

Interestingly, I only have one of the “big three”.
A Taylor 110e. And it has a very “un-Taylor” tone.
In my hands it has the “boom” of a D18. But not quite as “complex”.
I have a number of Alvarez guitars, that mimic other manufacturers guitars.
I believe a LOT of tone is subjective.
I get a lot of very similar things out of different guitars of different wood types.
However, I pretty much always sound like me.
So, I believe your personal style also impacts the “implicit” tone of whatever guitar you play.

[AZLiberty]

Originally Posted by Photojeep

Hi Everyone,

I began wondering how this is possible.

PJ

Bracing.

Not exclusively of course, but the majority of the voicing of a guitar comes from the bracing pattern used.

This is why a Martin DSR sounds different from a D-28. The DSR has a simplified bracing pattern that ends up less scooped, and somewhat brighter sounding.

When a builder is known for a "Signature Sound" it's because they have a bracing pattern that they use across a significant portion of the line to get that sound.

Taylors end up sounding bright, Martins scooped, Larrivees balanced, and Gibsons midrangey.

When Larrivee uses their "Traditional" bracing instead of their standard bracing the sound ends up slightly more bass heavy.

When Martin uses -15 or -16 series bracing instead of standard series bracing the sound ends up less scooped.

When Taylor added a relief route to their tops they ended up more ballanced and less trebbely.

Etc.

[RP]

I tend to agree with you, PJ. An individual manufacturer's tone may be more the same than it is different, but the glaring error IMO is when I read a gross generalization such as Taylors sound like A, Martins sound like B and Gibsons sound like C. Let's face it, sometimes Taylors sound like B (I know my Taylor 524 does) and Martins sound like A (my previous D-28 did)...

[$ongWriter]

Originally Posted by Photojeep

Hi Everyone,
I've done a quick search but really didn't find much to answer my question:

After reading many, many posts about guitars' tone and how each manufacturer seems to have their "own" sound, I began wondering how this is possible.

I'm NOT saying this tone difference doesn't exist. I own a Gibson and two Martins so I KNOW it exists. My question is how is this possible?

All I play and own are dreadnoughts and while there are definite similarities, there is a distinctive difference between brands. My two Martins, a DCPA4 Siris and a DSR2, while different models and ages and materials still exhibit a distinct "Martin Tone" the is different from my Gibson J15.

I mean, we all know that two different guitars of the same model will yield two different sounds yet how is it possible they are both within the same "family" of tone?

I've read one model of guitar has forward shifted bracing and another has non-shifted bracing, while this one has scalloped bracing yet that one has straight braces, and yet another's braces are made of wood species "X" and a different model's braces are made of species "Y"; and yet these guitars, with all their differences have a similar "sound"

How is this possible? If there are so many different variables in the equation how can they have a "Martin" sound rather than a "Gibson" sound?

Enquiring minds want to know...

Best,
PJ

To me the "Martin" tone is a Pre-War D-28...and the "Gibson" tone is a Pre-War J-35. All the other guitars are just variations of those. I think the term "Martin" and "Gibson" tone are way way over used...each company makes so many models...and they all sound different.