Thread: Jazz Theory?
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Old 04-24-2015, 09:17 PM
NewGuitarist NewGuitarist is offline
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Thanks a lot folks!

Jon, what can I say... thaaaaaaaanks! This helps A LOT!
You just schooled me on stuff I've spent a long time trying (and struggling) to see them for what they really are. yeaaah!

So before the normal major and minor keys, there were four old modes Dorian, Mixolydian, Phrygian and Lydian. So basically these four only, right?

It makes sense now to me that scales don't define genres but man the phrygian does usually sound spanish and it's found in flamenco music, AFAIK.
Which means each one of the other three might have a sound that lends itself to a certain music genre in one way or another, right?

Now here comes another question, (sorry if I'm bothering you but I'm really enjoying reading your posts) since you said that the harmony concept (chords) is almost absent in some European folk music and in music from other cultures around the world ( I would believe you were referring to Eastern and Arabic music, right?). So in these music genres they use different types of scales from the ones normally used in western music, maybe the octave would be divided differently as well.. that leaves me wondering they should have a different approach to music? Like a new kind of music theory or something?!
So all these years and years one might spend exploring and learning about diatonic and chromatic harmony.. this all just means nothing when it comes to those types of music!!

Yet I can only imagine what a music genre that makes use of those additional scales from the other musical cultures yet still has a rich harmony would sound like!

After the free modal jazz, do you think that jazz would some day even start to use new scales other than the ones from the western musical culture?
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